Villain was def loose but only played weird against the cash machine I was trying to isolate and was otherwise mostly sane; I thought villain *could be* a little agitated w/me (many pfrs, betting overs HU/SH and improving over him exactly like this hand here) so had that in mind when he raised an ace-less board; considering these things do you call this or 3-bet?
And if you don't mind, a reason why you do either...
Mike
Party Poker 1/2 Hold'em (6 max, 6 handed)
FTR converter on zerodivide.cx
Preflop: Hero is SB with A[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], 7[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img].
<font color="#666666">
2 folds</font>, Button calls, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises</font>, BB calls, <font color="#666666">
1 fold</font>.
Flop: (5 SB) 6[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], 4[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], 5[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(3 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, BB calls.
Turn: (3.50 BB) K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(3 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, BB calls.
River: (5.50 BB) 8[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(3 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, <font color="#CC3333">BB raises</font>, <font color="#CC3333">Hero </font>?