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As to your question about 2 players flopping a flush. I think the math would look like:

9C3 / 48C3 that is 9 of you and your opponent's suit remaining in the deck (as you both hold a suited hand) three of which will be on the flop / the total 48 card deck drawn from 3 times
9C3 = (9)(8)(7) / (3)(2) reduces to (3)(4)(7) = 84
48C3 = (48)(47)(46) / (3)(2) reduces to (16)(47)(23) = 17296
84/ 17296 = 0.00485 or 0.485%

thus you and your opponent will both flop a flush 0.48% of the time you both hold a hand of the same suit.

again, you may want to post this in probability to make sure the math is right but it should be something like this.

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THANKS for the reply and your time - I did post it over there as well. Any thoughts on factoring in the odds that two players would even hold the same suited cards before the flop, then factoring that in figure to the above numbers to get odds on it happening before any cards are dealt, or is that getting to crazy??

And also for the "(3) Sets" question, could you factor in the odds that even (3) players would hold pocket pairs before the flop, and determine odds that this scenario would happen before any cards are dealt?

Thanks again.