Villan had just sat down and played one hand prior to this one. In that hand he called a min-raise pf and folded to a bet on the flop. He bought in for $80 at a $200 table.
PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em, $2 BB (8 handed)
FTR converter on zerodivide.cx
CO ($33)
Button ($155.10)
SB ($287.90)
Hero ($537.85)
UTG ($83)
UTG+1 ($132.85)
MP1 ($156)
MP2 ($104.75)
Preflop: Hero is BB with A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], Q[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img].
<font color="#666666">
2 folds</font>, MP1 calls $2, MP2 calls $2, <font color="#666666">
3 folds</font>, Hero checks.
Note: I raise about 60% of the time in this situation and check about 40% of the time. This may actually be the root of my whole problem in this hand. Since I didn't pop it up, it makes reading later hands much more difficult.
Flop: ($7) A[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], 8[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], 5[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(3 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">Hero bets $6</font>, <font color="#CC3333">MP1 raises to $14</font>, MP2 folds, Hero???
What is your standard line here? I've seen guys do this with a worse kicker than Q many times at the 1/2 tables. But of course, you could be facing a set or two pair. Assuming no reads against someone who just bought in short, do you re-pop here and figure you're going to get your money in? Fold? Call down if the bets aren't too big?
Assume that I raised it to $10 pre-flop and only villan called and the same action happened on the flop. Would that change your course of action?