Re: What percent of onliner poker players are profitable?
Rudbeack,
First, I posted a link to the one of the older threads, where this is extensively discussed.
Second, you have to give some weight to the data compiled by the massive dataminers!
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To get a 40/60 spread on winners/losers must require something like the average player to be atleast a 3BB/100 loser.
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Finally, given this statement by you, it should be fairly easy for you to understand why 40/60 is a close enough estimate of the true figure for it to be used.
3BB/100 is roughly equivalent to the rake (its actually slighly lower than this).
The average player has no advantage over anyone else, and thus their distribution is mainly determined by the roughly equivalent distribution of cards. Thus you might expect a normal distribution of variance around the rake.
A very small percentage of player have an advantage over their opponents, by better play! Which will slightly change the shape of the standard distribution.
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