[Spicymoose]

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The typical situation arises when he has K8 on a Q74 flop. It is unlikely that you will get a player like this away from his hand on the flop. If you call preflop he will bet the flop and if you 3-bet preflop he will peel a card getting 7-1.

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I think the situation you described is not typical. This is an agressive stealer, so he not have an overcard to the board, plus an overcard to the middle card. He may peel on the flop in your situation, but do you think he peels after your 3-bet when:

1. He has 86s and the board comes KT3
2. He has J6o and the board comes Q97
3. He has 44-66 and the board comes A87

I am probably doing the opposite now, and comming up with atypical flops in the other direction, but I do think that often we will be able to take it down with a bet on the flop.

Calling and raising most flops seems like it has merits too. But he will get to the turn more likely in that scenario (at least that is my opinion, I could be wrong), and I would rather him not see the turn.

These two lines are different, but seem close in value. I think metagame is important when you have two lines that are close in value, and I think the preflop 3-bet might be better for metagame.