[theblitz]

Texas Hold'em $0.50-$1 NL (real money), hand #1,517,304,887
Table Honolulu, 26 Nov 2005 8:36 PM ET

Seat 1: theblitz4 [ A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img],Q[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] ]
Seat 5: thomastom
Seat 8: gambitmj
ANTES/BLINDS
thomastom posts blind ($0.25), gambitmj posts blind ($0.50).

PRE-FLOP
theblitz4 bets $1, thomastom calls $0.75, gambitmj calls $0.50.

FLOP ($3) [board cards A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img],2[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img],8[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] ]
thomastom checks, gambitmj checks, theblitz4 bets $2, thomastom calls $2, gambitmj calls $2.

TURN ($9) [board cards A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img],2[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img],8[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img],A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] ]
thomastom checks, gambitmj checks, theblitz4 bets $4, thomastom bets $15.15 and is all-in, gambitmj calls $15.15, theblitz4 ?

Is this callable?
Surely one of them must have the flush. If not the original raiser then at least the over-caller.
Worth calling for the possible implied odds?