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Old 11-23-2005, 05:42 PM
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Join Date: Jun 2005
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Default Re: KK General Flop Question

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Very nice analysis, but why do you automatically eliminate AA & KK? Lots of times if I raise and get reraised I will just call with these hands. I might call AA in order to "trap". And I might call w/KK because I don't want to get all in against an obvious AA.

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Nothing in poker is definite (I didn't mean to come across that way). To read your opponent, you start with a wide range of hands and you eliminate some along the way (based on his actions). It's unlikely for him to hold KK since you're holding KK. AA doesn't make sense either. Why would he limp with AA, then just call your preflop raise (knowing he'll be out of position for the rest of the hand)? When I see solid players limp with AA, they usually re-raise big when it gets back to them. But nothing is absolute. He could just call your raise to trap you if it looks like he'll be heads up with you going to the flop.

AA comes along so infrequently that people usually don't mess around when they get it. It has such a big advantage preflop that you want to raise/re-raise and get it all-in before the flop. I think it's always correct to get all-in with AA preflop against one other player. You're at least a 4:1 favorite. Get your money in the middle when you're ahead. In this case, you're ahead big. Lots of people also play KK this strong.

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Reread my first post. He raised in early position, thats what makes this hand more interesting.
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