[ QUOTE ]
Is there a good rule of thumb for computing implied odds, or is just a very rough estimation? I think I have the implied odds to call here for set value, do I?
Party Poker No-Limit Hold'em Tourney, Big Blind is t15 (9 handed)
FTR converter on zerodivide.cx
Button (t1980)
SB (t1025)
BB (t985)
UTG (t955)
UTG+1 (t1145)
MP1 (t990)
MP2 (t1000)
Hero (t975)
CO (t945)
Preflop: Hero is MP3 with 7[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], 7[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img].
<font color="#666666">
3 folds</font>, MP2 calls t15, Hero calls t15, <font color="#666666">
1 fold</font>, <font color="#CC3333">Button raises to t85</font>, <font color="#666666">
1 fold</font>, BB calls t70, MP2 calls t70, Hero ?
[/ QUOTE ]
Well if you are likely to hit a set once out of every 8.5 times (I think [img]/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img]), and you have 70 to call, you should be thinking---if I hit my set will I be able to win at least 600 or so from the other players? With 270 already sitting in the pot, I think it would be likely to get quite a bit out of the others if you do hit. Factor in the times that the button has a real hand or the BB or limper hits top pair on the flop and you double up off of them, it looks to me like a call.