[chezlaw]

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Could it be that the terms are mutually exclusive? That once you subject it to doubt, it ceases to be faith?

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You are correct that doubt fundamentally undermines faith, but I don't think that is what Kierkegaard's getting at, so I'll throw out another question/clue: If faith and doubt are mutually exclusive, why aren't faith and logic also mutually exclusive?

Scott

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I'm on a roll at missing the point today so I'll have a stab at this, knowing I'm unsure about your point.

Faith and doubt are two different states of mind that refer to the nature of the world. If you have faith that P is the case then you accept that P is the case and hence don't doubt that P is the case. Therefore faith and doubt are mutually excusive.

Logic is not a state of mind about the nature of the world. Its a way of understanding what faith that P is the case means about the world e.g if you have faith the world is flat then logically that means you believe the world isn't banana shaped.

Is SK pointing out that to conclude P about the world using logic requires starting with some premise that is not logically deduced and has to be taken on faith.

chez