This might be standard. Villain here is ridiculously loose - something like 80% VP$IP - and passive. He also plays very oddly postflop. A couple hands ago, he donk bet the 3rd flush card on the river with only a pair, and called my raise. With that in mind, is this standard?
Absolute Poker 1/2 Hold'em (6 handed)
converter
Preflop: Hero is CO with A[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], 6[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img].
<font color="#666666">
1 fold</font>, MP calls, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises</font>, <font color="#666666">
2 folds</font>, BB calls, MP calls.
Flop: (6.50 SB) K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], 2[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(3 players)</font>
BB checks, MP checks, <font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, BB folds, MP calls.
Turn: (4.25 BB) 7[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
MP checks, Hero checks.
<font color="blue">My reasoning here is that I don't want to get check/raised. My hand is good, but a c/r would really suck here. Is it OK to check behind?</font>
River: (4.25 BB) J[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">MP bets</font>, Hero calls.
Final Pot: 6.25 BB