[Harv72b]

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Hand #1- I don't understand how we can call this yet evryone seems to agree we have odds to do so. A passive, no raise, player 3-bet you. You could easliy be up against a set which has many more outs to improve than you do. Your Ace outs may be worthless and your Q [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] is dirty for the gutshot. So please explain

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My reasoning:

HU vs. a preflop 3-bettor, the Q[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] is almost always a clean out. Basically, he'd have to have exactly A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] K[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] for that not to be true, unless he was 3-betting very lightly. While 20 hands is nowhere near a large enough sample to get a read on his preflop raising standards, the fact that he hadn't raised yet makes it probable that he's either passive or of average aggression preflop. So I'm confident in having at least 4 good outs (if he's got QQ I have 5).

So it really came down to implied odds. I did a quick mental calculation after he bet, and figured out that I am usually going to make up at least 3 BBs on the expensive streets when I turn a Q. I'm getting about 8:1 SB immediate on the call, so plus the implied odds it becomes 14:1...clearly enough to call with a 4-outer. I figure the only time I'm behind on the flop & I don't pick up 3+ BBs after hitting my Q is when he has exactly JJ and checks through on the turn. If the Q[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] falls on the turn, I'll lead with the intention of calling a raise & check/calling a non-diamond river.