[bobman0330]

The "extradition" was clearly illegal. It would make more sense to call it kidnapping, really.

The rationale for Israel's jurisdiction was that Eichmann was part of a conspiracy to exterminate the Jews. The annihilation of the nation of Israel was a part of that conspiracy. Therefore, Israel had jurisdiction to protect itself against crimes that threaten its existence/security. (Just like the US has jursidiction over extraterritorial counterfeiters.) The fact that Israel did not exist at the time is a problem, but it was well on the way to becoming a state.

Why do you feel that the trial was unfair? Many Germans were acquitted by the Allies at Nuremberg... what evidence do you have to demonstrate that Israel would have done the same if the proof against Eichmann had been insufficient?