Re: Implied odds?
Have i gone wrong in the very basics of poker then [img]/images/graemlins/blush.gif[/img] [img]/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img]
11.50:2 is the same as 5.75:1 No?
So whenever theres a raise, we must keep using the X:2 ratio, we can't simplify it down to X:1 ? Therefore we then must double the odds of hitting out next card i.e. FLush Draw 4.1:1, Now becomes 8.2:2 ?
Why have you mentioned GS odds at 21:2 and not 10.5:1?
If this is the case, maybe i've made huge -EV calls in the past and if so, I need further feedback on this.
Please explain further. Apoligises to the Original Poster(OP) if i'm wrong.
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