First post. Hopefully I can get the formatting down.

<font color="red">Hero</font> (70.5)
<font color="green">Villian-1</font> (30)
<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> (119.30)

The table is pretty loose. I just stacked someone after re-raising PF with AAds two hands prior to the hand in question. Lately, I have been experimenting with short-stacked buy-ins and TAG play, though I'm pretty sure my table image at this point was LAG.

My question involves the following hand at $50-PLO table.

Hero is MP+1 with: A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] Q[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 4[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]

MP limps (.50), <font color="red">Hero</font> limps (.50), CO limps (.50), B <font color="green">Villian-1</font> limps (.50), SB <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> checks, BB checks.

Flop: A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] J[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] Q[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]

<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> bets (1), MP folds, MP+1 calls (1), <font color="red">Hero</font> calls (1), CO calls (1), <font color="green">Villian-1</font> raises (4), <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> raises (6), MP+1 folds, <font color="red">Hero</font> folds, CO folds, <font color="green">Villian-1</font> raises (23), <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> calls (20).

Turn: A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] J[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] Q[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] 7[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]

<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> checks, <font color="green">Villian-1</font> bets (2.5 AI), <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> calls (2.5)

River: A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] J[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] Q[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] 7[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 7[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]

<font color="green">Villian-1</font> shows: K[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 4[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] 4[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 10[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]
<font color="blue">Villian-2</font> shows: 5[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] Q[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] K[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 10[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]

<font color="green">Villian-1</font> wins 32, <font color="blue">Villian-2</font> wins 32.


That each of the villians had K-10 was not surprising from the flop action. The fact that I would have won the hand doesn't bother me, as I am sure that I made the correct fold. My question is whether or not I should have called the initial weak bet (1). Given the flop, I was working under the assumption that Villian 2 had K-10 with likely back door flush outs. So, I called the weak bet figuring that I was getting the correct odds to look for a board pair on the turn. Obviously, once there was a raise and a re-raise it became an auto-fold.

Should I have called the initial weak flop bet OOP, or should this have been an autofold at that point already?