Newspeak
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A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.
How is the unconstitutional action of confiscating firearms from law-abiding NO citizens being justified? Is there some legal precedent concerning this situation that trumps the Bill of Rights?
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If the highest courts in the land can conclude that "public use" means "private use", that "personal use" equates to "interstate commerce", then why would it surprise anyone if they end up interpreting "keep and bear" to mean "be free of"? How about "keep forebearance"?
Whether it's being justified or rationalized, the court will have to participate and be a willing accomplice for it to happen.
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