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Only 20 hands on the villain, but he's been loose preflop and aggro postflop. This is his first raise.
PokerStars 0.50/1.00 Hold'em (9 handed)
converter
Preflop: Hero is UTG with A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], Q[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img].
<font color="#CC3333">Hero raises</font>, <font color="#666666">
7 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">BB 3-bets</font>, Hero calls.
Flop: (6.50 SB) K[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], 2[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], 2[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">BB bets</font>, Hero calls.
Turn: (4.25 BB) A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">BB bets</font>, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises</font>, BB calls.
River: (8.25 BB) 5[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">BB bets</font>, Hero calls.
Final Pot: 10.25 BB
Well huh. Pax says the flop may be a fold (but he'd call anyway), but I think the guy's treating this like a blind steal and doesn't necessarily have a hand. What would you suggest for a line here? I don't hate how I played it but I'm open to suggestions.
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Was the flop call-to-peel or a call-with-intent-to-raise-the-turn?