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Because the assumption that this is how we are to interpret the constitution is, itself, not founded in the Constitution. Kind of ironic, huh?

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If the standard is original intent, then yeah, pretty much. But if the standard is original meaning, then I don't see a problem or irony.

By the way, which is Scalia's standard? Which is Thomas' standard? I believe these and related matters were discussed at length some months ago but I don't recall the correct answers.