[ekky]

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I am thinking that it should have been a fold after the second player went all-in, as the first player, being shortstacked could be trying to push me off of my bet, as I had been pushing him around/stealing his blind for the past few rounds. Am I thinking right in this, as KQs is a decent hand in its own right, against a player that may or may not have any real strength himself? Am I wrong in thinking this, or should this have been a fold after the first player went all in?

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Yeah, you should have folded after the BB went all-in. Even without the guy between you being all-in, the raise from the BB would be enough cause for concern.

However, he knows he is going to showdown vs the all-in, and you would have to be at a pretty high level for someone to be making this move with nothing, just so he could take the 20k side pot and freeroll the all-in guy in the main pot.(of which 18,491 is his anyway)

taking all this into account,I'd say the *standard* range here would roughly be something like 1010---AA/AK/AQ , and QK underperforms against this range.