[SoBeDude]

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I know the villain has an AF of .4, but that is from playing over half his hands. I don't know if you can exactly correlate that to like the aggression of 25vp$ip/0.8AF but his bets aren't nearly as scary as a 20/0.4 so it might not be such a doom and gloom scenario.

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Does anybody have a link that helps explain the relation between VPIP and AF? I think I get it, but don't want to bog down the board with repetive discussion. I'll try a search too.

thanks,

lf

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I could be totally wrong, but there should be no link between the two.

One is all about how often (in percentages) you decide to play. The other is all about after you do decide to play, how hard you bet/raise as opposed to check/call.

So...they should be totally independent.

-Scott