An Incredibly Mundane Question About Cold-Calling
Okay,
So I don't like pre-flop questions, but:
You have Q [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] J [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] in MP1 at a full table.
The player behind you is an uber-fish and quite laggy: 52/18/1.75.
A tight-agg. pre-flop/passive post-flop (read-tight weak ABC Lame-O; 15/12/1.4) open raises in UTG+1.
It's one fold to you and you call.
Cool?
I figured a cold-call here was fine because the player behind me was so likely to join the party. Oh yeah, and because I could count on the raiser to play his hand to weakly and allow me to have my way with him if I flopped a draw (which is what happened in the hand in question [img]/images/graemlins/cool.gif[/img]).
This situation came up in a hand I played on Party and the UTG Lame-O started berating me for cold-calling with QJ. Another tight-passive Lame-O joined the flame-fest.
By the way, if any of you are said tight-passive Lame-Os, I apologize, while simultaneously encouraging you to: 1) play more hands; 2) not be tight-weak.
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