[DanS]

This is a hand from the Bay 101 20/40. This hand is driving me crazy... every part of it except for how *I* played it, though if you think I blew it, lemme know.

I open raise A [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]K [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], and am coldcalled by a guy whose mission in life is to cold call my fairly TAGish raises. The big blind calls, and we're three to the flop.

Flop is K [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 7 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. Note on the BB: he's the type of guy who once he's decided to check with the intention to check raise, he won't deviate, unless it's 3 bets back to him. IOW, he thinks... but what he thinks, sometimes I have no idea. I get, cold call guy calls, and here comes the checkraise. Both call.

Turn is the 3 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. BB bets, I raise, cold call guy fold. He thinks for a split second, and seems somewhat perplexed, then calls.

River is the Q [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], putting up a 4 flush. Every better hand calls, and IMO, the only worse hand that has made it this far that can pay off is KJ/KT no spade, and even those are unlikely. He tables 77 for the full house, and says "You already had it?" as I instamuck, though it's as much a statement as a question.

I just don't get it. The only hands that likely could have already had it were AJs and ATs, and those became less likely by the way I played the flop. I realize that most opponents have warped logic, but his "You already had it" comment just stuns me. Assuming it was a question, was he calling the river looking to fill? Was he really poor enough of a player to assume that turn raise equals a made flush. Oh well, his not 3 betting the turn is (thankfully) par for the course in 20/40s out here, but this hand leaves me baffled.

Dan