So...does this mean that I assigned him too small a percentage for bluff? I assumed that even as active as he was, he must at least be raising with small pockets or unsuited high cards. I don't have a big edge against the majority of those holdings and was hoping to avoid a coinflip.

Believe me, I'm looking for reasons to push this preflop - and again, I'd decided preflop that all my money was going in on the flop - so either way my money is going in. Doesn't it seem like it would be +EV to at least attempt to get him to laydown on the flop?

Am I severely underestimating the likelihood that he would fold to a preflop reraise all-in?

Am I severely underestimating the likelihood that I am a big favorite preflop?

Thanks for the response,