Verbally binding?
Here's something that came up a little while ago in a live 10/20 NL game. I was not involved in the hand but there was some heated discussion over it.
Two players were in the hand. Player A had $3000 and Player B had $5000. Player A had some black chips, but mostly green chips and Player B had almost all green chips.
On the river, Player A shoves all-in for about $2000. Player B thinks for a little and verbally declares, "yeah, I call"
Player A then turns over a set. Player B mucks his hand.
The dealer is then counting up Player A's stack which actually worked out to $2055. The dealer then informs Player B that he needs to give $2055.
Player B looks at the dealer and says, "I never called him."
It was very clear that Player B verbally declared a call on the river, but he had made no motion to shove any chips prior to the showing of hands.
The pit was called over of course and made a ruling.
What do you think the correct ruling should be here?
Lawrence
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