Villain is in MP1 with 28.57 VPIP and 6.45 PFR. He has generally been passive postflop with the exception of the river.. hence my question. (Only 62 hands on villain however)
Party Poker 1/2 Hold'em (10 handed)
converter
Preflop: Hero is SB with Q[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], T[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img].
<font color="#666666">
3 folds</font>, <font color="#CC3333">MP1 raises</font>, <font color="#666666">
4 folds</font>, Hero calls, <font color="#666666">
1 fold</font>.
Flop: (5 SB) 3[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], T[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], K[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
Hero checks, <font color="#CC3333">MP1 bets</font>, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises</font>, MP1 calls.
Turn: (4.50 BB) 2[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, MP1 calls.
River: (6.50 BB) J[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">Hero bets</font>, <font color="#CC3333">MP1 raises</font>, Hero???
Final Pot: 10.50 BB
This isn't the most interesting hand, but I'm trying to start posting more hands (any hands?), and this is the only one that remotely puzzled me during my short session of play.