Re: Standard TP fold? (RESULTS)
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Why raise the turn?
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if he gets raised he can be pretty sure he is far behind and fold?
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Why would you do that when you can get to showdown for the same price, and usually make more when you're ahead? (Guy behind folds for 2 but not for 1 typically, and if the turn bettor is bluffing, he's going to fold to the raise)
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Truthfully, I was pretty sure I had MP1 beat and that he had limped with some kind of medium ace that I outkicked (e.g. ATo or A8s, A9s). I also condsidered something like 44, but thought it far less likely. I don't think he'd play a flush draw this way; if he had the nut flush draw he would have 3-bet the flop.
SB had me concerned with all his cold-calling and I wanted to see just how much he liked his hand, so I rasied the turn. I figured him for either some sort of ace as well (medium suited perhaps, the worst case being spades, though I've even seen rocks play AQo this way preflop and flop) or a flush draw or something slowplayed like 55. If he has a weaker ace, I charge him the maximum, but if he's a ahead of me, he's C/Ring the turn (with, as I mentioned, the possible exception of a "scared" AQo just coldcalling and riding it out).
If he just coldcalls again on the turn, I'm probably check/folding the river unimproved. If he 3-bets, I know I'm toast.
Now all that said, the results are surpising:
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Surprising, nothing! They had exactly what I thought:
SB bets the river, MP calls.
SB shows QsTs for the flush.
MP1 shows ATo for a donkish 1 pair.
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