Re: optimal bluffing frequency
im approaching this purely from a game theory perspective; i'm studying a game, trying to find the optimal strategy for both players. I made the assumption that given a certain hand, the 2nd player always calls or always folds. i want to know why I can make such an assumption? it sounds like you were getting to that, Jerrod. Or can i justify this by saying that given that the first player is playing optimally, it doesnt matter if the 2nd player always calls, always folds, or wavers in between. So WLOG, assume he always calls or always folds.
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