Re: what is the rule for this.
"The problem here is that players have acted without this information and now players get to act WITH it. Not a fair situation even after cards are shown to the entire table. "
Unless I'm misreading this, it sounds as if you're saying that the hand should be a misdeal, because players acted before the two colluded?
Or by players did you mean only the two "colluders"?
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