[FishAndChips]

For eveyone that thinks it's a large number of raises, 900,000 or more (as opposed to ~20), it seems to me that you are looking at your odds of having the best hand against a random hand by your opponent, and then figuring it is correct to bet and raise a number of times proportional to the number of hands you beat initially. However, everytime your opponet raises it's for what he perceives as value(as discussed previously he's an expert and not making exploitable mistakes like bluffing with zero fold equity etc.) Therefore you should only raise the number of times that you are the favorite when called. If your opponent raises on the 20th bet for value look out! He can really only have one hand. He would have just called at some point sooner if his hand was any weaker than yours, because it would not be a raise for value against what he would narrow down as your range of possible hands.

Take an example from Hold'em. You have KK heads-up against a single opponent. The odds of your opponet having a better hand, AA, is 203.17-1. While this is not as large as the odds in the Sklansky example, 999,998-1, the number of raises is somewhat proportional. Now using the logic of the large number of raises, you would raise with KK something like 200 times. Now it's interesting to note that in actual practice, most of you would probably put your opponnet on AA after only a few bets and raises as opposed to 200+ and would subsequently just call much sooner.