Re: Implied value and draws
Oh yeah, and in case you're not fond of mathematics and instead prefer an anecdotal answer to your question, this is how Stuey Ungar won the WSOP in 1980:
Doyle Brunson: A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]7[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]
Stu Ungar: 5[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]4[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]
Doyle raises pre-flop, Stu calls, Pot = about $17,000.
Flop: A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]7[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]2[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]
Doyle makes a pot-sized bet ($17,000), Stu calls.
Turn: 3[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]
Stu bets $30,000, Doyle goes all-in, Stu calls.
River: 2[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]
Stu wins the hand with 5-high straight.
Stu called on the flop getting only 2-to-1 on an almost 12-to-1 shot, but as he later said, "I knew that if a 3 came up that I was going to bust [Doyle]"
So again, it depends.
|