[Catt]

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I think I misuse this stat. I always thought if a player had a high VP$IP% and a high PFR% when he limps there would be a good chance he has very poor cards. If a player has a low VP$IP% and a low PFR% when he limps I feel he has a average hand or good hand. Is this a mistake?

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No, I think you're roughly on the right track -- but really there's no need to look at the numbers in tandem. A high VPIP and a high PFR might generally mean that a limp is a weak hand -- the reasoning is that if, say his PFR is 25, then any limp is either deception or a hand that falls in the bottom 3/4's of all possible hands. But, a VPIP of 20 and a PFR of 18 means a limp is likely to be on the weaker side of what a tightish player would play, regardless of the tighter player's PFR. Conversely, a low VPIP would generally mean that a limp is a pretty decent hand, regardless of PFR -- for example, when a 10/6/2 player limps, you should still expect that his limping hand is pretty strong -- he's only playing 10% of all hands dealt. A limp from such a player UTG (if he is position aware) indicates a pretty strong hand. Just remember that VPIP represents the subset of hands played from among all possible hands; and PFR represents a subset of hands raised from among all possible hands played. A 20/15 player and a 20/3 player are probably playing similar hand sets -- the former is just much more aggressive pre-flop.