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Also, if you're worrying about that 10% of the time, look at it this way-that 10% of the time he sucks out on your set assumes you see two cards. If you flop a set of KK and are trying to get money out of the guy, and he ends up seeing a river you'll have extracted more than the $1420 I say you need to and the price you'll have charged him to suck out will make up for his redraw. So getting the 6.5:1 is a bare minimum but I think you can get more than that so it's easier to justify the call.

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There is absolutely zero substance in that ramble so I won't bother to address it unless you clarify.

I never said it's 8.5:1 to flop a set. I know the difference between 1/8.5 and 7.5:1. I am saying that to calculate implied odds when flopping a set, purely assuming that you are a 100% favorite when you flop one, you need to win 8.5 times the bet amount. Since you don't understand math, that means you lose $10 (assuming $10 bet preflop) 8.5 times, and need to win $85 the time you hit a set to make up for that. Notice that my 8.5 times the bet argument assumes it is 7.5:1 or 1/8.5 to flop a set.

The problem, however, is that you aren't a 100% favorite every time you flop a set. As a result, you need to win even more than 8.5 times the bet amount. 10 times is my estimate, and I show you how I derive it.

You still haven't explained the math behind your 6.5 argument.