[Hellrazor]

I pretty much knew this - but I guess the second hand here was the more interesting one...

Same game next hand.
I get KQ [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]in CO. UTG calls (Villain from last hand), UTG+1 folds, I raise to $2, Button cold calls, folded to villain (who is still spouting about the last bad beat) who calls.

Flop is 8 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] 5 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] 2 [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]
Villain pushes all in (aprox $22)

I hesitate and fold, button called (short of villain's stack by about $2)
Turn is a spade (ten I think), river a red facecard.

I folded because I wasn't getting ~4-1 on my bet (is that right?) And there was no one to pay me off anymore if I hit. Additionally I had no idea if button would call or not.

This was the correct play - right? Is it 4-1 or more like 3-1 to call for a flush draw and 2 to come?

Villain showed 88 for the flopped set, and the button showed A8o (no spades) for TPTK on flop.

Thanks again.