[Bob T.]

Since it seems I should be raising more preflop, does this mean that I appear overly aggressive post-flop, or adequately aggressive post-flop? Or am I just misinterpreting these numbers?

I don't know, so much of this depends on circumstances, opponents, what hands you have been playing, etc.. I think that the best way to try and figure this out is to post some hands where you might have been more aggressive, or maybe some hands where you might be less aggressive, and try and figure things out.

You play fairly tightly, so that might mean that postflop, you have a better hand a lot of the time, so your play looks more aggressive, but it really isn't, because you just have a higher percentage of hands that you can legitimately value bet. Or something else. Like I said, its hard to divine from the tea leaves of statistics.