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Old 10-30-2004, 02:56 PM
burningyen burningyen is offline
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Join Date: Jun 2004
Posts: 175
Default Re: Must moral law be divinely inspired?

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Subjective morality and blind faith in flawed reason have led to the worst excesses of human history. Both Nazism and Soviet Communism speak to failures of human-based moral systems. Moral relativism and deconstructionism have both eroded the foundations of morality without providing an alternative source of authority.

Thus I now understand the necessity of having an objective right and wrong.

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You confuse the recognition of moral relativism with false morality. And then you conclude that the failure of moral relativism to lead to desirable results therefore "necessitates" the existence of an objective morality. I think your logic is seriously flawed.

I do believe in objective morality, but I don't see why that necessitates a belief in a divine presence. Would this divine presence be subject to morality? If so, why? Did the divine presence create morality? If so, could he/she/it uncreate it? Would it still be objective morality? Was that divine presence's creation of morality an amoral act? And if the divine presence is *not* subject to morality, then why are we?

Just because our human brains are flawed doesn't mean pure reason is any less of an authority as a source of morality.
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