Two Plus Two Older Archives

Two Plus Two Older Archives (http://archives2.twoplustwo.com/index.php)
-   Probability (http://archives2.twoplustwo.com/forumdisplay.php?f=23)
-   -   simple question (http://archives2.twoplustwo.com/showthread.php?t=47443)

mostsmooth 10-01-2003 08:43 PM

simple question
 
the chance of rolling a total of 6 using two dice is 5/36,right? how do you figure the chance of rolling a 6 after x rolls?

mostsmooth 10-01-2003 09:29 PM

Re: simple question
 
[ QUOTE ]
the chance of rolling a total of 6 using two dice is 5/36,right? how do you figure the chance of rolling a 6 after x rolls?


[/ QUOTE ]
maybe i need to clarify better, what are the chances youd roll at least one 6 after 5 rolls?

Copernicus 10-02-2003 12:58 AM

Re: simple question
 
1-(1-31/36)^5

That is 1 minus the probability that you rolled no sixes in 5 rolls.

BruceZ 10-02-2003 02:57 AM

Re: simple question
 
what are the chances youd roll at least one 6 after 5 rolls?

1 - (31/36)^5 = 52.7%

That's 1 minus the probability of not getting a six 5 times in a row (C had 1 too many 1 minuses there [img]/images/graemlins/blush.gif[/img]).

Now, if you roll until you get a 6, on which roll are you most likely to get it?

pudley4 10-02-2003 03:18 PM

Re: simple question
 
[ QUOTE ]


Now, if you roll until you get a 6, on which roll are you most likely to get it?

[/ QUOTE ]

The first [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

Wake up CALL 10-02-2003 03:42 PM

Re: simple question
 
[ QUOTE ]
Now, if you roll until you get a 6, on which roll are you most likely to get it?

[/ QUOTE ]

The last roll of course.

Copernicus 10-02-2003 05:07 PM

Re: simple question
 
Or one too few "1-"s [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img] Thanks...not sleeping enough lately trying to work and play tourneys at night!

Bozeman 10-02-2003 06:38 PM

Re: simple question
 
1st?

mostsmooth 10-02-2003 06:43 PM

Re: simple question
 
so the formula requires use the chances of a 6 not coming up ( 31/36) when calculating? theres no formula that uses the chance that it will come up? (5/36)?

Bozeman 10-02-2003 07:23 PM

Re: simple question
 
True. You can approximate the answer as n*p (n=#of tries, p= prob. on one try) if n and p are small. Basically, this multiply counts all the times where it happens more than once.

A conceptually different way to arrive at the accurate answer is:
P= p |chance of getting it on the first try
+(1-p)*p |chance of getting it on the second try and not getting it on the first
+(1-p)^2*p |chance of getting it on the third try and not 1st or 2nd
+(1-p)^3*p |etc.
+(1-p)^4*p
=1-(1-p)^5 |as given above with a little algebra
=52.6% for p=5/36



All times are GMT -4. The time now is 05:28 AM.

Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2024, vBulletin Solutions Inc.