Probablity that none of 2 callers has a diamond when flops all suited
 

This situation happens all the time.I have two callers preflop and the board is all suited-(Diamonds).What is the probablity that none of my opponents have a diamond .Also how does it variate with number of callers ?

Re: Probablity that none of 2 callers has a diamond when flops all suited
 

The probability that a card not in the flop is not a diamond is:

(number of non-diamonds left)/(number of cards left)

Calculate this number and multiply for each card.

For 2 players (4 cards), that is: 37/47*36/46*35/45*34/44 = 37% if you have no diamonds yourself