quick question
 

Odds and percentage of an "any 2 suited cards" hand being dealt preflop to a 10 handed table. i got:

[C(4,1)*C(13,2)*C(10,1)]/C(52,2)=approx 235.3%
C(52,2)/[C(4,1)*C(13,2)*C(10,1)]=approx 0.4
0.4-1= -(0.6) to 1 odds

that looks wrong (negative odds [img]/images/graemlins/tongue.gif[/img]?).
what did i do? (sorry to those those math geniuses that i ask all these stupid math questions but i want to make sure of what i'm doing)

Re: quick question
 

The probability that an individual has suited cards is 23.53%. You can't just multiply that by 10. To get the exact answer you need a fairly large inclusion/exclusion. Search for BruceZ's post on inclusion/exclusion, hopefully that will shed some light on the majority of your recent questions.