The Jackpot that almost was
 

Last night I was playing 4-8 Hold 'Em at Hollypark. I limped in early position with A 8os (jackpots make Aces look better). Anyways I flopped AA6...turned a 9...rivered an A. My lone opponent had pocket nines for Aces full of nines. I had four Aces with kicker problems and couldn't beat the nine. Can't play both cards...can't win the jackpot. Bye bye 20% of 8K [img]/images/graemlins/frown.gif[/img]

Re: The Jackpot that almost was
 

fold preflop

Re: The Jackpot that almost was
 

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fold preflop

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Re: The Jackpot that almost was
 

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(jackpots make Aces look better).

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guess that's an illusion huh

Re: The Jackpot that almost was
 

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I had four Aces with kicker problems and couldn't beat the nine. (

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What does this mean?

Re: The Jackpot that almost was
 

Probably that both hole cards must play in the best 5 card hand in order to win the jackpot.

Also, the preflop call is why jackpot games are often very profitable even with the extra drop.

Re: The Jackpot that almost was
 

Now I get it.

Anyways... it would count for the opponent using two whole cards? Is it because he can technically choose which of the two nines he wants to play?

Re: The Jackpot that almost was
 

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Now I get it.

Anyways... it would count for the opponent using two whole cards? Is it because he can technically choose which of the two nines he wants to play?

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yes.


and this playing any ace is stupid, and yes people playing any two 'bad beat' cards in order to get it does indeed make the game profitable.

Re: The Jackpot that almost was
 

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Now I get it.

Anyways... it would count for the opponent using two whole cards? Is it because he can technically choose which of the two nines he wants to play?

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Unless I misunderstood your reply, No you don't get it.

The OP has to have both of his hole cards play and He can't beat the nine on the board. His eight doesn't play so the hand doesn't qualify for a bad beat jackpot hand.

Re: The Jackpot that almost was
 

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Now I get it.

Anyways... it would count for the opponent using two whole cards? Is it because he can technically choose which of the two nines he wants to play?

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Unless I misunderstood your reply, No you don't get it.

The OP has to have both of his hole cards play and He can't beat the nine on the board. His eight doesn't play so the hand doesn't qualify for a bad beat jackpot hand.

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No, you misunderstood it. When I typed anyways it implied that I was on a new line of thought, no? My question was something new altogether.