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jwlondon
12-31-2003, 09:09 AM
In the latest Card Player mag, Andrew Glazer writes about a 2-4 hold'em game and drawing to an inside str8. He states..."and now the pot had reached \$22...by the time it reached me. I could see the turn card for only \$2m unless the small blind chose to raise. I rated to make a straight a little more than one time in 12 (four fives game me a straight, out of 47 unseen cards), so I was almost getting fair pot odds, right then and there."

I am confused how to compare pot odds with drawing cards. I have been computing drawing odds as follows: 47 unseen cards minus 4 (the fives)for 43 to 4, or 10.75 to 1. Further, with 22 bets in the pot, by my computation, the pot is laying him exactly 11 to 1.

I assume Glazer is right. Where am I wrong?

Saborion
12-31-2003, 09:42 AM
The pot was laying him 11:1 odds. He will make his straight a little more than once in 12 attempts, thus he needs little less than 11:1 odds (10.75:1 to be exact).

I`m not sure what he mean with "so I was almost getting fair pot odds, right then and there." since he was. Might be thinking about the possibility that the SB choose to raise.