|
|
#1
08-24-2005, 11:22 AM
|
|||
|
|||
LetMedown, does this look correct to you?
If you had a straight possibilty, assume your down cards and flop contain a 4, 5 and 8, you need a six and seven to complete the straight. If you were inclined to bet on runner-runner, is this the correct probability?
(8 C 1)(4 C 1) --------------- ~.014 (47 C 1)(46 C 1) 
|
|
#2
08-24-2005, 11:36 AM
|
|||
|
|||
|
Re: LetMedown, does this look correct to you?
Confusing wording, but assuming you mean that there are no 6's and 7's out, among your hand and the flop:
16/C(47,2) = 1.48% ...so I'm inclined to agree.
|
|
#3
08-24-2005, 11:44 AM
|
|||
|
|||
|
Re: LetMedown, does this look correct to you?
Yes, that's what I meant. It's the probability of any one single solution for a straight after the flop. It's what I'm working on re: Question for the whizes" and fractional outs. As always, Thanks.
|
 |
|
|
Linear Mode
