I should be able to formulate this myself but I can't.....

[Ghazban]

OK, I feel dumb as I can't seem to formulate this properly so, if someone could give me the derivation and answer, I'd greatly appreciate it.

If I start with two suited cards in holdem, what percentage of flops (not boards, just flops) will contain either:

1) 2 or more of my suit
2) quads, full house, trips, or two pair (not counting boards where one of the two pair I make is on the board. That is, if I hold XYs, an XYZ board would count but an XZZ board would not)

Assume this is done in a vacuum where nothing at all can be inferred about other players' hands.

Thanks in advance.