QJ suited vs 88 or 22

[BugSplatt]

Why is 88 favored over 22 vs the QJ suited? I asked this on the post about Negraneau, but maybe a new post will get a bit more attention.

My way of thinking:

Both the pp 8's and pp 2's are under the same mathematical probablity of flopping a set. However, you could flop a set with the 88 and lose (flop comes 8, 9, 10 for example) whereas if you flopped a set with the 2's (2, 9, 10 ) the QJ hand is still drawing.

Both the 8's and 2's have the same chance of making a straight, but if there was a straight to the Q with the 8's (flop and turn could be 9, 10, J and Q) the JQ hand still has outs to either win or tie the hand. However, if the 2 hits a straight on the turn, unless two suited cards are on the board that correspond with the JQ leaves the JQ hand drawing dead.

Could one of you mathematical wizards set me straight on this?

Bug