Pot Odds Question

[Medibart]

In the explanations of Pot Odds I've never seen this mentioned so excuse me if it is a basic question.

The basic concept for pot odds is if your pot odds are higher than your probability for making your hands you should call. However, for that concept to be correct, the wager would have to be a constant. Of course, we all know that wager is not a constant. Your call in one hand might be 1BB and in the next hand it might be 20BB while still getting the same pot odds. How is this variation in wager taken into consideration in the basic Pot Odds equation?

My assumption is that if N were the number of plays, as N approaches infinity variation in wager is attenuated and approaches 0. Is this assumption correct?

So is it always correct to call if you have proper pot odds no matter what the impact is to your stack?