baseball scoring question

[Josh W]

Runner on 3rd, zero or one out. You hit a deep fly ball that gets dropped by the outfielder. Deep fly ball. DEEP.

Guy drops it, runner on third walks home, obviously.

You reach on an error, obviously. But are you 0 for 1 in this atbat, or 0 for 0? If the ball was caught, you'd be 0-0.

I see good arguments for both ways, but not sure as to what the actual rulebook states. Wondering if anybody here knows...

Josh

[JTG51]

0-0 with a sac fly and an RBI.

[Josh W]

Thats what you think it IS or SHOULD BE? how sure are you?

Thanks,

J

[ThaSaltCracka]

I believe both are 0-0, if its with an error, then no RBI, if its the sac fly, then an RBI.

[ThaSaltCracka]

actually wait, with an error, it should be 0-1, no RBI.

[Beerfund]

[ QUOTE ]
actually wait, with an error, it should be 0-1, no RBI.

[/ QUOTE ]

This is how it is and should be.

[Vince Young]

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
actually wait, with an error, it should be 0-1, no RBI.

[/ QUOTE ]

This is how it is.

[/ QUOTE ]

[tdarko]

you are wrong, you cannot assume a sac fly. you are 0-1.

if there is a runner on 1st and 3rd and the batter hits a sharp groundball to the shortstop and he steps on second and has the batter out by a mile at first but throws in 4 rows deep out of play it is an earned run for the pitcher since you cannot assume a double play.

[JTG51]

[ QUOTE ]
Thats what you think it IS or SHOULD BE? how sure are you?

Thanks,

J

[/ QUOTE ]

It was an uneducated guess. Looks like it's wrong though. I tried to sound confident just in case I was right.

[JTG51]

[ QUOTE ]
...you cannot assume a sac fly.

[/ QUOTE ]

I was guessing, so I don't doubt you.

That rule is even dumber than not assuming a double play. How can the defense making an error cost the batter? It doesn't make any sense.