Who pays the rake?

[QuickLearner]

I disagree MagiLuke

For your argument to be accurate every player in every hand should suffer a loss (on every hand) whether they win or not. In your example, how much have you been raked if you never won a single pot during the hour? The answer is $0 I believe. If you won a few pots and those pots were raked, you suffered the loss. The winner of the pot loses the rake after every hand. The losers in the hand lose nothing during the process of raking because once the money is in the pot it isn't theirs anymore, it belongs to the pot and later to the winner.

There may be $5000 on the table, but that bears no relationship to the raking of individual hands, right?

[timmer]

The winner pays the rake with a portion of the bets won from all the players that contribute them.

Thats why it is important not to pursue edges smaller than the portion of the rake that you are accountable for in a given betting senario in a raked game.

this is a very basic explanation.

timmer

[magiluke]

[ QUOTE ]
I disagree MagiLuke

For your argument to be accurate every player in every hand should suffer a loss (on every hand) whether they win or not. In your example, how much have you been raked if you never won a single pot during the hour? The answer is $0 I believe. If you won a few pots and those pots were raked, you suffered the loss. The winner of the pot loses the rake after every hand. The losers in the hand lose nothing during the process of raking because once the money is in the pot it isn't theirs anymore, it belongs to the pot and later to the winner.

There may be $5000 on the table, but that bears no relationship to the raking of individual hands, right?

[/ QUOTE ]

Even if I lost every hand I played, some of my money went to the casino. And if, during say one hour, I didn't play a single hand, I'm still losing the possibility of making more money, sonce there is less money at the table in general. It's an economic loss of money to the rake.