baseball scoring question

[Josh W]

Runner on 3rd, zero or one out. You hit a deep fly ball that gets dropped by the outfielder. Deep fly ball. DEEP.

Guy drops it, runner on third walks home, obviously.

You reach on an error, obviously. But are you 0 for 1 in this atbat, or 0 for 0? If the ball was caught, you'd be 0-0.

I see good arguments for both ways, but not sure as to what the actual rulebook states. Wondering if anybody here knows...

Josh

[JTG51]

0-0 with a sac fly and an RBI.

[Josh W]

Thats what you think it IS or SHOULD BE? how sure are you?

Thanks,

J

[JTG51]

[ QUOTE ]
Thats what you think it IS or SHOULD BE? how sure are you?

Thanks,

J

[/ QUOTE ]

It was an uneducated guess. Looks like it's wrong though. I tried to sound confident just in case I was right.

[tdarko]

you are wrong, you cannot assume a sac fly. you are 0-1.

if there is a runner on 1st and 3rd and the batter hits a sharp groundball to the shortstop and he steps on second and has the batter out by a mile at first but throws in 4 rows deep out of play it is an earned run for the pitcher since you cannot assume a double play.

[JTG51]

[ QUOTE ]
...you cannot assume a sac fly.

[/ QUOTE ]

I was guessing, so I don't doubt you.

That rule is even dumber than not assuming a double play. How can the defense making an error cost the batter? It doesn't make any sense.

[tdarko]

[ QUOTE ]

That rule is even dumber than not assuming a double play. How can the defense making an error cost the batter? It doesn't make any sense.

[/ QUOTE ]
yeah there is some luck involved in this game.

[pryor15]

[ QUOTE ]
if there is a runner on 1st and 3rd and the batter hits a sharp groundball to the shortstop and he steps on second and has the batter out by a mile at first but throws in 4 rows deep out of play it is an earned run for the pitcher since you cannot assume a double play.

[/ QUOTE ]

that run would be unearned. you can't assume the double play, but you can assume the out at first in that situation. if the SS tosses to 2B and the 2B drops it, then you don't assume the double play, since the first out wasn't recorded. the runner at second is "unearned" b/c he should have been out on the flip from SS, but the batter is "earned", since you can't assume the double play.

on the other example, i think you're 0-1, but i'd have to think about it. i'd guess you can't just assume the runner on third would score (or even attempt to score, you never know) think Cecil Fielder vs. Vlad's arm

[The Dude]

tdarko, the rule about never assuming a double play has nothing to do with the question. The batter would be credited with a sac fly and an RBI. In fact, this exact situation came up in a Dodgers game already this year (it was in their home opener, I believe).

[LotsOfOuts69]

Remember, this is the sport where if there are 2 outs and no one on, and you hit a dribbler back to the pitcher, and he throws it into the stands, and then proceeds to give up 20 straight homeruns, he gets no earned runs on his record.
Even despite the fact that it was HIS error.