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Playing some 1/2 Stud/8 at Party. Ran into the following one-in-a-million hand.
A: (XX)J [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] B: (XX)2 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] ME ![]() D: (XX)8 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] E: (XX)T [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] F: (XX)J [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] G: (XX)3 [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] H: (XX)T [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] B brings it in, I call intending to slowplay my rolled-up trips, D: completes, E calls, folded back to me. I now raise, D 3-bets, E calls 2, I cap, both call. (12 sb in the pot) 4th Street: ME ![]() D: (XX)8 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] K [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] E: (XX)T [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 5 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] D bets, we both call. 5th Street: ME ![]() D: (XX)8 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] K [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] E: (XX)T [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 5 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] J [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] I bet, D-raises (now I put him onat least a K in the hole, maybe KK or K8), E calls, I 3-bet, D caps, E folds. (17 bb in the pot) 6th Street: ME ![]() D: (XX)8 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] K [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 9 [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] We cap it again here and on the river. I (you'd think obviously) take the whole pot. HH shows that opponent started with rolled up 8's and filled on the river. I haven't played a whole lot of Stud until recently, but, what's the probability of rolled-up trips vs. rolled-up trips? |
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