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#1
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How big a sample is needed to draw any conclusions about [flops seen %]?
If I have PokerTracker data that says a player is seeing 30% of the flops, how reliable is this number given a sample size of 10/20/30/40/50/100/etc hands? Anyone know of a formula to calculate this? Adde |
#2
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Don't put too much reliability on that statistic! It is
much more important to make what you believe (and better if it is in reality!) are decisions with the largest +EV. Flop% doesn't take into account that you are in the blinds, whether the game is now 9-handed or 8-handed or game conditions have changed so you can see more flops (maybe the game has become very loose passive) assuming you are playing at a ring game. There are so many factors that are much more important than this number. |
#3
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I see your point.
Still, I think there has to be some validity in knowing the flops seen % contra not knowing it. (And as for my case, the blinds are counted for, using [voluntary pay money to see the flop]), and I only use 8-10 player tables in the stats). If you have a sample of 20 hands and a player is seeing 50% of the flops, isn't it more probable that he is loose than not? |
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