AQd 1st hand

bxpeter · #1 12-22-2004, 01:57 AM

First hand of a $100 party SNG.

I get AQd in the CO. two limpers to me, I limp as well.

993 flop with two diamonds.

first limper bets 15, call, I call. I think blinds folded?

turn is the Td.
first limper bets 15 again, second limper raises to 70, i reraise to 175, first limper reraises to 425. 2nd limper calls.

easy fold, huh?

adanthar · #2 12-22-2004, 02:13 AM

Yep, autofold.

betgo · #3 12-22-2004, 08:12 AM

Why not raise 2 limpers from the CO with AQs?

You have the nut flush in a paired board. Easy fold in pot limit Omaha. Not as easy a fold in holdem.

mcteecho · #4 12-22-2004, 12:53 PM

I admit I'm really new, but I don't get it - the autofold only makes sense if you're satisfied that the reraiser has T9, right? And are you really that confident that's what he has? Or is there something else that I don't see? And again, I'm new.

bigredlemon · #5 12-22-2004, 01:31 PM

Even in $5+1, it's rare to see someoen re-re-raise all in with out the nut flush on a paired board. x100 on a $100+9. Also, 9T is the type of hand you'd expect someone to limp in with (every 2-card straight is makes is the nut straight btw.)

And betting 15 into the pot would be consistent with someone with trips (weak lead to illict a re-raise.)

mcteecho · #6 12-22-2004, 01:48 PM

I understand - I mistakenly thought hero already had the nut flush, b/c I thought his Ace was a diamond. On re-reading it, I realize I got that wrong - he only has the Q-high flush draw. If, hypothetically, hero DID have the nut flush, is it still an auto-fold - do we think it's that likely that there was a T9 limper?

tubbyspencer · #7 12-22-2004, 02:10 PM

[ QUOTE ]
Also, 9T is the type of hand you'd expect someone to limp in with (every 2-card straight is makes is the nut straight btw.)

[/ QUOTE ]

Well, every 2 card straight that JT makes is the nut straight, but I don't think T9 is the nuts on a board of KQJxx.

adanthar · #8 12-22-2004, 02:16 PM

He does have the nut flush, and yes, this is an autofold.

T9, 33 and TT are all possible but it really doesn't matter which one because *this* kind of action at this level is not 2 trips with nothing else.

Sometimes, you fold the winner to an overplayed lone 9 and K high flush, but most of the time you've got the second best hand.

Edit: If you fold this hand with this same action at the $10 level you shouldn't play poker again for a while.

mcteecho · #9 12-22-2004, 02:25 PM

OK, that makes sense, thanks. I was viewing it from my $10 perspective (from which, I think you're saying, my analysis is OK), and overlooking the different standard of play in the $100 world (never having experienced it!). Thanks for taking the time.

bxpeter · #10 12-22-2004, 03:14 PM

Yup, I did have the nut flush made. AdQd.

I thought that 33 was his most likely hand here.

The min bet of 15 is very suspicious to begin with. It either indicates nothing at all, or something very strong.

After he reraises after his min bet was raised, and then reraised on the flush board, its pretty clear he's got a full house.

I did feel pretty sure of this at the time, but I went all in anyway, mainly because I'm an idiot and I just get pissed off when I lose chips on the first hand of a tournament, and because that middle limper actually called that last reraise with something probably extremely weak and I wanted to see if he would overcall all in with his crap hand. (bad excuse for my stupidity)

they both called, and they showed 33, TQ.