You\'re both wrong
It's very easy to compute the wrong answer, and a relative pain in the butt to compute the correct one:
1-
[(50*49/2)-24]/(50*49/2)*
[(48*47/2)-24]/(48*47/2)*
[(46*45/2)-24]/(46*45/2)*
[(44*43/2)-24]/(44*43/2)*
[(42*41/2)-24]/(42*41/2)*
[(40*39/2)-24]/(40*39/2)*
[(38*37/2)-24]/(38*37/2)*
[(36*35/2)-24]/(36*35/2)*
[(34*33/2)-24]/(34*33/2)
= 22%.
The denominator will come up in other problems with 9 opponents, so it is worth remembering its value(2.2575x10^26).
Note that the odds of a given player having one of these hands is 24/1326=1.8%, but if the first 9 players do not have one of these hands, the chance that the final player has it is 4.3% or more than twice as great.
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